The dreadful News-Leader asks the wrong question.

It asks "Is marriage a matter of love, or law?"

The right question to ask would be, "What is the government's legitimate interest in marriage?"

The answer, of course, is as a contract between consenting individuals.


And it has no business dictating the sexes of those entering the contract.


I've heard that the FMA denies nobody the ability to get married. If it's similar to the state ban proposed in Missouri, it does. The MO amendment defines marriage as between "One man and one woman."

Does this not deny the intersexed (formerly known as hermaphrodites) the ability to get married to ANYONE?

And yet they insist it's not discrimination.

What's next, a constitutional definition of "man" and "woman"?